200 IMPORTANT ICSE 2025 CHEMISTRY QUESTIONS

567ae2b9 9668 41af 8566 c60b2e577b5d ALL ABOUT CHEMISTRY

Welcome, ICSE Chemistry aspirants! As you embark on your journey to conquer the 2025 board exam, meticulous preparation is your greatest ally. This comprehensive collection of 200 pivotal questions is meticulously crafted to align with the latest ICSE syllabus and exam pattern. It’s your ultimate toolkit to not just familiarize yourself with the types of questions you’ll encounter, but to truly master the core concepts and application skills that will pave your way to success.

What Makes This Collection Indispensable?

  • Syllabus-Centric Focus: Each question is thoughtfully curated to mirror the key topics and concepts outlined in the ICSE Chemistry syllabus.
  • Exam-Oriented Approach: The questions are designed to reflect the style, format, and difficulty level of the actual board exam, giving you a real-time feel of what to expect.
  • Conceptual Depth & Breadth: This compilation doesn’t just scratch the surface. It delves into the intricacies of each topic, ensuring you develop a robust understanding of the underlying principles.
  • Strategic Practice & Revision: Working through these questions will reinforce your learning, identify areas of strength and weakness, and fine-tune your problem-solving skills.
  • Confidence Booster: With consistent practice and a thorough grasp of these questions, you’ll undoubtedly approach the exam with enhanced confidence and a winning mindset.

How to Maximize Your Learning:

  1. Systematic Approach: Don’t just skim through the questions. Tackle them one by one, applying your knowledge and understanding.
  2. Conceptual Clarity: If you encounter a challenging question, don’t just look at the answer. Revisit the related concepts, ensuring you grasp the ‘why’ behind the solution.
  3. Time Management: As you practice, time yourself to simulate exam conditions and improve your speed and accuracy.
  4. Self-Assessment: Use the provided answers and explanations to evaluate your performance and identify areas that need further attention.

Let’s Get Started!

This compilation is your stepping stone to acing the ICSE 2025 Chemistry exam. Dive in, challenge yourself, and emerge victorious!

  1. An aqueous solution of copper sulphate remains bluish on electrolysis.
    Which of the following could be the electrodes?
    P. Anode: Copper; cathode: Copper
    Q. Anode: Platinum; Cathode: Copper
    R. Anode: Copper; Cathode: Platinum

(a) Only P
(b) Only Q
(c) Only R
(d) Both P and Q

  1. An electrolytic solution maintains its characteristic color during electrolysis. Which of the following electrode combinations could be responsible?
    P. Anode: Metal X; Cathode: Metal X
    Q. Anode: Inert Material Y; Cathode: Metal X
    R. Anode: Metal X; Cathode: Inert Material Y

(a) Only P
(b) Only Q
(c) Only R
(d) Both P and R

  1. The concentration of the active ions in an electrolytic solution remains relatively constant during electrolysis. Which of the following electrode pairings would achieve this?
    P. Anode: Metal A; Cathode: Metal B
    Q. Anode: Inert Material Z; Cathode: Metal A
    R. Anode: Metal A; Cathode: Metal A

(a) Only P
(b) Only Q
(c) Only R
(d) Both P and R

  1. An electrolytic cell is set up to maintain the concentration of the dissolved colored species. Which of the following electrode combinations is most suitable for this purpose?
    P. Anode: Reactive Metal L; Cathode: Unreactive Metal M
    Q. Anode: Unreactive Metal M; Cathode: Reactive Metal L
    R. Anode: Reactive Metal L; Cathode: Reactive Metal L

(a) Only P
(b) Only Q
(c) Only R
(d) Both P and R

  1. During electrolysis, a solution retains its original hue, indicating a stable concentration of the coloured ions. Which of the following electrode pairs could facilitate this?
    P. Anode: Metal N; Cathode: Metal N
    Q. Anode: Inert Material W; Cathode: Metal N
    R. Anode: Metal N; Cathode: Inert Material W

(a) Only P
(b) Only Q
(c) Only R
(d) Both P and R

  1. Which of the following samples contains the fewest molecules?

(a) 5g of methane (CH₄)
(b) 10g of water (H₂O)
(c) 15g of ammonia (NH₃)
(d) 20g of carbon dioxide (CO₂)

  1. Which of the following contains the greatest number of moles?

(a) 22g of propane (C₃H₈)
(b) 16g of oxygen (O₂)
(c) 14g of nitrogen (N₂)
(d) 17g of hydrogen sulfide (H₂S)

  1. What is the volume occupied by 2 moles of hydrogen gas (H₂) at STP?

(a) 11.2 L
(b) 22.4 L
(c) 44.8 L
(d) 67.2 L

  1. If a container holds 5.6 L of oxygen gas (O₂) at STP, how many grams of oxygen are present?

(a) 4g
(b) 8g
(c) 16g
(d) 32g

  1. You have two containers. One contains 10g of helium (He), and the other contains 10g of argon (Ar). Which container has more molecules, and approximately how many times more?

(a) Helium, about 2 times more
(b) Helium, about 10 times more
(c) Argon, about 2 times more
(d) Argon, about 10 times more

  1. Which of the following samples contains the most molecules?

(a) 2 grams of hydrogen gas (H₂)
(b) 16 grams of oxygen gas (O₂)
(c) 17 grams of ammonia (NH₃)
(d) 44 grams of carbon dioxide (CO₂)

  1. How many moles are present in 8.5 grams of ammonia (NH₃)?

(a) 0.25 moles
(b) 0.5 moles
(c) 1 mole
(d) 2 moles

  1. What volume will 3 moles of nitrogen gas (N₂) occupy at STP?

(a) 11.2 L
(b) 22.4 L
(c) 33.6 L
(d) 67.2 L

  1. If you have 11.2 liters of methane (CH₄) at STP, what is the mass of methane present?

(a) 4 grams
(b) 8 grams
(c) 16 grams
(d) 32 grams

  1. Which sample contains approximately twice the number of molecules as 8 grams of oxygen gas (O₂)?

(a) 2 grams of hydrogen gas (H₂)
(b) 16 grams of nitrogen gas (N₂)
(c) 17 grams of ammonia (NH₃)
(d) 4 grams of helium gas (He)

  1. Which of the following contains the fewest number of molecules?

(a) 10 grams of hydrogen gas (H₂)
(b) 10 grams of nitrogen gas (N₂)
(c) 10 grams of carbon dioxide (CO₂)
(d) 10 grams of ammonia (NH₃)

  1. Which of the following quantities of substances would have the greatest mass?

(a) 2 moles of nitrogen gas (N₂)
(b) 6.022 x 10²³ molecules of water (H₂O)
(c) 11.2 liters of oxygen gas (O₂) at STP
(d) 3 gram atoms of sodium (Na)

  1. A student tests four different solutions for conductivity using a conductivity apparatus. The results are shown below:
    Solution 1: Distilled water – No conductivity
    Solution 2: Tap water – Conducts electricity weakly
    Solution 3: Copper sulphate (CuSO4) solution – Conducts electricity strongly
    Solution 4: Ethanol (C2H5OH) solution – No conductivity
    Which of the following best explains the results?

    (a) Only ionic compounds conduct electricity in solution.
    (b) Only solutions containing metals conduct electricity.
    (c) The presence of ions in a solution enables it to conduct electricity.
    (d) Only polar molecules can dissolve in water and conduct electricity.
  2. A student investigated the electrical conductivity of several solutions. Which of the following sets of solutions would all conduct electricity?
    (a) Sugar water, vinegar, and pure water
    (b) Salt water, hydrochloric acid solution, and sodium hydroxide solution
    (c) Kerosene, vegetable oil, and distilled water
    (d) Ethanol, glucose solution, and ammonia solution (weak)
  3. Which of the following statements BEST explains why some solutions conduct electricity while others do not?
    (a) Solutions that are hot conduct electricity better.
    (b) Solutions that contain dissolved solids conduct electricity.
    (c) Solutions that contain mobile ions conduct electricity.
    (d) Solutions that are brightly coloured conduct electricity.

  4. Three unknown liquids were tested for electrical conductivity. The results were:
    • Liquid X: Conducts electricity strongly
    • Liquid Y: Does not conduct electricity
    • Liquid Z: Conducts electricity weakly
    Which of the following could be the identities of X, Y, and Z, respectively?

    (a) Distilled water, salt water, sugar water
    (b) Vinegar, oil, tap water
    (c) Hydrochloric acid, ethanol, tap water
    (d) Sodium hydroxide solution, gasoline, copper sulphate solution
  5. Four different solutions were tested with a conductivity meter. The readings were:
    • Solution A: Very low conductivity
    • Solution B: High conductivity
    • Solution C: No conductivity
    • Solution D: Moderate conductivity
    Which choice MOST accurately matches the solutions with their likely identities?

    (a) A – Salt water; B – Distilled water; C – Copper sulfate; D – Ethanol
    (b) A – Tap water; B – Sugar solution; C – Hydrochloric acid; D – Ammonia (weak)
    (c) A – Ethanol; B – Sodium hydroxide; C – Pure water; D – Vinegar
    (d) A – Ammonia (weak); B – Salt water; C – Oil; D – Lemon juice

  6. Which of the following scenarios BEST demonstrates the importance of ions for electrical conductivity in solutions?
    (a) Heating a salt solution makes it conduct electricity better.
    (b) Dissolving sugar in water does not allow the solution to conduct electricity.
    (c) Filtering a muddy water sample makes it conduct electricity.
    (d) Adding more water to a salt solution increases its conductivity.
  7. A student tested four unknown liquids for their ability to conduct electricity. Which set of results is MOST likely correct?
    (a) Gasoline – conducts strongly; Salt water – no conductivity; Distilled water – conducts weakly
    (b) Vinegar – conducts weakly; Sugar water – conducts strongly; Ethanol – no conductivity
    (c) Lemon juice – conducts weakly; Pure water – no conductivity; Copper chloride solution – conducts strongly
    (d) Vegetable oil – no conductivity; Tap water – conducts strongly; Ammonia solution (weak) – no conductivity
  8. Which of the following substances, when dissolved in water, would NOT form a solution that conducts electricity?

(a) Lithium bromide (LiBr)
(b) Sucrose (C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁)
(c) Acetic acid (CH₃COOH)
(d) Sodium phosphate (Na₃PO₄)

  1. Why does a solution of potassium chloride (KCl) conduct electricity, while a solution of glucose (C₆H₁₂O₆) does not?
    (a) KCl is a polar molecule, while glucose is nonpolar.
    (b) KCl is an ionic compound that dissociates into ions in water, while glucose is a molecular compound that does not.
    (c) KCl reacts with water to form ions, while glucose does not react with water.
    (d) KCl is more soluble in water than glucose.
  2. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the electrical conductivity of aqueous solutions?
    (a) All solutions conduct electricity.
    (b) Only solutions containing covalent compounds conduct electricity.
    (c) Solutions conduct electricity due to the movement of ions.
    (d) Solutions conduct electricity due to the movement of electrons.
  3. Which of the following aqueous solutions would NOT conduct electricity?
    (a) Sodium chloride (NaCl) solution
    (b) Sugar (C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁) solution
    (c) Hydrochloric acid (HCl) solution
    (d) Potassium hydroxide (KOH) solution

Assertion – Reasoning Questions

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

  1. Assertion (A): A solution of sodium chloride conducts electricity.
    Reason (R): Sodium chloride is a covalent compound.
  2. Assertion (A): Ammonia gas is collected by the downward displacement of air.
    Reason (R): Ammonia gas is lighter than air.
  3. Assertion (A): Dry hydrogen chloride gas is collected by the upwards displacement of air.
    Reason (R): Hydrogen chloride gas is heavier than air.
  4. Assertion (A): Atomic size decreases across a period from left to right.
    Reason (R): The number of electron shells increases across a period.
  5. Assertion (A): Ionization energy generally increases across a period.
    Reason (R): Effective nuclear charge increases across a period, making it harder to remove an electron.
  6. Assertion (A): Sodium (Na) has a larger atomic radius than Chlorine (Cl).
    Reason (R): Sodium has fewer protons in its nucleus than Chlorine.
  7. Assertion (A): Fluorine (F) has a higher electron affinity than Iodine (I).
    Reason (R): Fluorine is more electronegative than Iodine.
  8. Assertion (A): Noble gases have positive electron affinities.
    Reason (R): Noble gases have completely filled electron shells.
  9. Assertion (A): Metallic character decreases across a period.
    Reason (R): The tendency to lose electrons decreases across a period.
  10. Assertion (A): Non-metallic character increases across a period.
    Reason (R): The tendency to gain electrons increases across a period.
  11. Assertion (A): Oxides of metals are generally basic.
    Reason (R): Metals tend to lose electrons and form positive ions.
  12. Assertion (A): Electronegativity is a measure of an atom’s tendency to attract electrons in a chemical bond.
    Reason (R): Electronegativity values are constant for a given element.
  13. Assertion (A): Melting points of metals generally decrease down a group.
    Reason (R): The strength of metallic bonds weakens down a group due to increased atomic size and shielding.
  14. Assertion (A): Ionic compounds are generally hard and non-volatile.
    Reason (R): Ionic compounds have strong electrostatic forces of attraction between ions.
  15. Assertion (A): Covalent compounds are generally poor conductors of electricity.
    Reason (R): Covalent compounds do not have free ions or mobile electrons.
  16. Assertion (A): NaCl conducts electricity in its molten state but not in its solid state.
    Reason (R): In the solid state, the ions in NaCl are held in fixed positions and cannot move.
  17. Assertion (A): The formation of an ionic bond is a redox process.
    Reason (R): One atom loses electrons (oxidation) and another atom gains electrons (reduction) during ionic bond formation.
  18. Assertion (A): Polar covalent compounds have a partial positive and a partial negative charge.
    Reason (R): Polar covalent compounds are formed when there is a significant difference in electronegativity between the bonded atoms.
  19. Assertion (A): Non-polar covalent compounds do not have any partial charges.
    Reason (R): Non-polar covalent compounds are formed when there is no difference in electronegativity between the bonded atoms.
  20. Assertion (A): Ammonium chloride (NH₄Cl) contains ionic, covalent, and coordinate bonds. Reason (R): The ammonium ion (NH₄⁺) has coordinate bonds, and it is ionically bonded to the chloride ion (Cl⁻).
  21. Assertion (A): Water (H₂O) is a polar molecule.
    Reason (R): Oxygen is more electronegative than hydrogen.
  22. Assertion (A): Methane (CH₄) is a non-polar molecule.
    Reason (R): Carbon and hydrogen have nearly the same electronegativity.
  23. Assertion (A): Coordinate bonds are formed by the sharing of a lone pair of electrons from one atom to another.
    Reason (R): Both atoms contribute equally to the shared pair of electrons in a coordinate bond.
  24. Assertion (A): Strong acids have a high degree of ionization in aqueous solutions.
    Reason (R): Strong acids completely dissociate into ions in water.
  25. Assertion (A): Acetic acid (CH₃COOH) is a weak acid.
    Reason (R): Acetic acid only partially dissociates in water.
  26. Assertion (A): Sulfuric acid (H₂SO₄) is a dibasic acid.
    Reason (R): Sulfuric acid has two replaceable hydrogen atoms per molecule.
  27. Assertion (A): Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) is a strong alkali.
    Reason (R): Sodium hydroxide completely dissociates into ions in water.
  28. Assertion (A): Ammonia (NH₃) is a weak base.
    Reason (R): Ammonia only partially reacts with water to form hydroxide ions.
  29. Assertion (A): A solution of sodium chloride (NaCl) is neutral.
    Reason (R): Sodium chloride is formed from a strong acid (HCl) and a strong base (NaOH).
  30. Assertion (A): A solution of ammonium chloride (NH₄Cl) is acidic.
    Reason (R): Ammonium chloride is formed from a strong acid (HCl) and a weak base (NH₄OH).
  31. Assertion (A): A solution of sodium carbonate (Na₂CO₃) is alkaline.
    Reason (R): Sodium carbonate is formed from a weak acid (H₂CO₃) and a strong base (NaOH).
  32. Assertion (A): pH is a measure of the concentration of H⁺ ions in a solution.
    Reason (R): A lower pH indicates a higher concentration of H⁺ ions and a more acidic solution.
  33. Assertion (A): Universal indicator shows different colors in acidic and basic solutions. Reason (R): Universal indicator is a mixture of several indicators that change color over a range of pH values.
  34. Element ‘P’ has electronic configuration 2,8,1. The number of chloride atoms present in the chloride of ‘P’ is

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

  1. Element Q has an electronic configuration of 2, 8, 7. How many hydrogen atoms will it combine with to form a stable compound?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

  1. An element R has the electronic configuration 2, 8, 2. What will be the formula of its oxide?

(a) RO
(b) R₂O
(c) RO₂
(d) R₂O₃

  1. Element X has 5 valence electrons. What is the formula of its compound with hydrogen?

(a) XH₃
(b) XH₂
(c) XH₅
(d) H₃X

  1. The electronic configuration of element Y is 2, 8, 6. What is the valency of Y?

(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8

  1. An element Z has 3 valence electrons. What is the formula of its chloride?

(a) ZCl
(b) ZCl₂
(c) ZCl₃
(d) ZCl₄

  1. Element A has the electronic configuration 2, 8, 4. What is the formula of its hydride?

(a) AH₂
(b) AH₃
(c) AH₄
(d) AH

  1. An element B has 6 valence electrons. What is the formula of its sodium salt?

(a) NaB
(b) Na₂B
(c) NaB₂
(d) Na₂B₃

  1. Element C has an atomic number of 17. What is the formula of its potassium salt?

(a) KC
(b) K₂C
(c) KC₂
(d) K₃C

  1. An element D has 2 valence electrons. What is the formula of its compound with oxygen?

(a) DO
(b) D₂O
(c) DO₂
(d) D₂O₃

  1. Element E has an electronic configuration of 2, 8, 5. What is the formula of its compound with hydrogen?

(a) EH₂
(b) EH₃
(c) EH₄
(d) EH₅

  1. A nitrate which forms a precipitate with ammonium hydroxide and is also soluble in excess of it:

(a) Zinc nitrate
(b) Ferrous nitrate
(c) Ferric nitrate
(d) Lead nitrate

  1. A metal ion in solution forms a gelatinous white precipitate with both ammonium hydroxide and sodium hydroxide. This precipitate dissolves in excess sodium hydroxide. Identify the metal ion.

(a) Ferrous ion (Fe²⁺)
(b) Zinc ion (Zn²⁺)
(c) Lead ion (Pb²⁺)
(d) Aluminum ion (Al³⁺)

  1. Which metal ion forms a dirty green precipitate with sodium hydroxide but no precipitate with ammonium hydroxide?

(a) Ferrous ion (Fe²⁺)
(b) Ferric ion (Fe³⁺)
(c) Cupric ion (Cu²⁺)
(d) Lead ion (Pb²⁺)

  1. A solution containing a metal ion forms a pale blue precipitate with ammonium hydroxide, and the precipitate dissolves in excess ammonia to give a deep blue solution. The same metal ion gives a pale blue precipitate with sodium hydroxide, and this precipitate does not dissolve in excess sodium hydroxide. Identify the metal ion.

(a) Calcium ion (Ca²⁺)
(b) Cupric ion (Cu²⁺)
(c) Ferrous ion (Fe²⁺)
(d) Lead ion (Pb²⁺)

  1. Which of the following electronic configuration represents the most electropositive element?

(a) 2,2
(b) 2,8,2
(c) 2,8,8,2
(d) 2

  1. Which of the following electronic configurations represents the most electropositive element?

(a) 2,8,1
(b) 2,8,7
(c) 2,6
(d) 2,8,8

  1. Which electronic configuration indicates the least electropositive element?

(a) 2
(b) 2,8,8,1
(c) 2,8,6
(d) 2,8,2

  1. Among the following, which element is most likely to readily form a +2 cation (ion with a +2 charge)?

(a) 2,8,5
(b) 2,8,2
(c) 2,8,8,1
(d) 2,7

  1. Which element is more electropositive: X (2,8,3) or Y (2,8,5)?
    (a) X
    (b) Y
    (c) They have the same electropositivity.
    (d) Cannot be determined.
  2. Assertion (A): Alkali metals do not form dipositive ions.
    Reason (R): After loss of one electron alkali metals achieve stable electronic configuration of noble gases.
  3. Assertion (A): Fluorine is more electronegative than iodine.
    Reason (R): Fluorine has a smaller atomic radius and greater nuclear charge than iodine.
  4. Assertion (A): Sodium chloride (NaCl) is a good conductor of electricity in its solid state.
    Reason (R): Ions are free to move in solid NaCl.
  5. Assertion (A): Acids turn blue litmus paper red.
    Reason (R): Acids donate protons (H+ ions) in aqueous solutions.
  6. The ratio between the volumes occupied by 4.4 grams of carbon dioxide and 2 grams of hydrogen gas is:

(a) 2: 1
(b) 1: 2
(c) 1: 10
(d) 10: 1

  1. What is the ratio between the number of moles of oxygen gas (O2) in 16 grams of oxygen and the number of moles of nitrogen gas (N2) in 28 grams of nitrogen?

(a) 1:2
(b) 2:1
(c) 1:1
(d) 4:1

  1. What is the ratio of the volumes occupied by 14 grams of nitrogen gas (N2) and 16 grams of oxygen gas (O2) at the same temperature and pressure?

(a) 1:1
(b) 1:2
(c) 2:1
(d) 7:8

  1. Aqueous lead(II) nitrate can be distinguished from aqueous zinc nitrate by adding any of the following solution in excess, except:

(a) Aqueous sodium chloride
(b) Aqueous sodium sulphate
(c) Dilute sulphuric acid
(d) Sodium hydroxide solution

  1. Which of the following reagents can be used to distinguish between aqueous solutions of sodium chloride (NaCl) and silver nitrate (AgNO₃)?
    (a) Dilute nitric acid (HNO₃)
    (b) Aqueous ammonia (NH₃)
    (c) Aqueous potassium Chloride (KCl)
    (d) Distilled water (H₂O)
  2. How can you distinguish between hexane (C₆H₁₄) and hexene (C₆H₁₂)?

(a) Bromine water (Br₂/H₂O)
(b) Lime water [Ca(OH)₂]
(c) Oxygen
(d) Sodium chloride solution

  1. Which reagent will produce a white precipitate with both calcium chloride (CaCl₂) and zinc chloride (ZnCl₂), but the precipitate dissolves in excess reagent in the case of zinc chloride only?

(a) Sodium carbonate (Na₂CO₃)
(b) Silver nitrate (AgNO₃)
(c) Sodium hydroxide (NaOH)
(d) Sulfuric acid (H₂SO₄)

  1. Which solution can be used to distinguish between lead nitrate [Pb(NO₃)₂] and zinc nitrate [Zn(NO₃)₂]?

(a) Sodium chloride (NaCl)
(b) Sodium sulphate (Na₂SO₄)
(c) Dilute hydrochloric acid (HCl)
(d) All of the above

  1. Which of the following about oxides is correct?
    (a) A basic oxide is an oxide of a non-metal
    (b) Acidic oxides contain ionic bonds
    (c) Amphoteric oxides contain a metal
    (d) Basic oxides are always liquids
  2. Which of the following is not a characteristic of basic oxides?
    (a) They react with acids to form salts and water.
    (b) They turn litmus paper blue.
    (c) They are typically formed by non-metals.
    (d) They dissolve in water to form alkaline solutions.
  3. Which oxide reacts with both dilute HCl and aqueous NaOH?

(a) ZnO
(b) CO₂
(c) Na₂O
(d) P₂O₅

  1. Which statement is true about acidic oxides?
    (a) They react with bases to form salts and water.
    (b) They turn red litmus paper blue.
    (c) They are typically formed by metals.
    (d) They conduct electricity in aqueous solution.
  2. Which of the following oxides is most likely to react with dilute hydrochloric acid to form a salt and water?

(a) SO₃
(b) CO₂
(c) K₂O
(d) NO₂

  1. An oxide of an element reacts with both hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide. The oxide is likely to be:

(a) Acidic
(b) Basic
(c) Neutral
(d) Amphoteric

  1. Which of the following statements is incorrect about oxides?
    (a) Some metal oxides are basic.
    (b) Non-metal oxides tend to be acidic.
    (c) All oxides are solids at room temperature.
    (d) Certain metal oxides can be amphoteric.
  2. A student takes Cu, Al, Fe and Zn strips, separately in four test tubes labelled as I, II, III and IV respectively. He adds 10 mL of freshly prepared ferrous sulphate solution to each test tube and observes the colour of the metal residue in each case.
    He would observe a black residue in the test tubes:

(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (I) and (III)
(c) (II) and (III)
(d) (II) and (IV)

  1. A student places strips of zinc, copper, and silver separately in three test tubes labeled A, B, and C. He adds 10 mL of dilute hydrochloric acid to each test tube and observes any reactions. In which test tubes would he observe the evolution of hydrogen gas?

(a) A and B
(b) A only
(c) B and C
(d) A and C

  1. Three test tubes contain solutions of iron(II) sulfate, copper(II) sulfate, and zinc sulfate. A piece of nickel metal is added to each test tube. In which test tube(s) will a displacement reaction occur?

(a) Iron(II) sulfate only
(b) Copper(II) sulfate only
(c) Zinc sulfate only
(d) None of the test tubes

  1. If an element has one electron in the outermost shell, then it is likely to have the _ (smallest/ largest) atomic size amongst all the elements in the same period.
  2. _ (sulphuric acid/ hydrochloric acid) does not form an acid salt.
  3. A __ (reddish brown/ dirty green ) coloured precipitate is formed when ammonium hydroxide is added to a solution of ferrous chloride.
  4. Alkynes undergo __ (addition/ substitution) reactions.
  5. An _ (alkaline/ acidic ) solution will turn methyl orange solution pink or red.
  6. Elements with seven valence electrons are likely to have the _ (highest/lowest) electronegativity among elements in the same period.
  7. Sulphuric acid can form __ (one/two) acid salts.
  8. _ (nitric acid/ sulphuric acid) can form acid salt.
  9. A solution with a pH less than 7 is considered _ (acidic/basic).
  10. Elements in the same group have the same number of _ (protons/valence electrons).
  11. Identify the following:
    (a) A bond formed between two atoms by sharing of a pair of electrons, with both electrons being provided by the same atom.
    (b) A salt formed by the complete neutralization of an acid by a base
    (c) A reaction in which the hydrogen of an alkane is replaced by a halogen.
    (d) The energy required to remove an electron from a neutral gaseous atom.
    (e) A homogeneous mixture of two or more metals or a metal and a non-metal in a definite proportion in their molten state.
  12. Identify the reactant and write balanced equation for the following:
    (a) Sulphuric acid reacts with compound P to give a salt ZnSO4 and hydrogen sulphide gas.
    (b) Hydrochloric acid reacts with compound Q to give a salt which is soluble in hot water only and nitric acid.
    (c) Nitric acid reacts with a non-metal to give an acid, nitrogen dioxide gas and water.
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116.

Element X is in group IIA of the Periodic Table. X reacts with Y to form an ionic compound XY2. Which equation shows the process that takes place when Y forms ions?
(a) Y – e- → Y+
(b) Y + e- → Y+
(c) Y – e- → Y-
(d) Y + e- → Y-

117.

Which of the following arrangement is CORRECT as per the property stated against it?
(a) Be> C> N> F (Atomic size)
(b) I > Cl > Br > F (Atomic size)
(c) Cl > Si > Na > P ( Ionization energy)
(d) Li > F > B > O ( Electron affinity)

118.

Which of the following arrangement is INCORRECT as per the property stated against it?
(a) Be> C> N> F (Atomic size)
(b) I > Br > Cl > F (Atomic size)
(c) Cl > Si > Na > P ( Ionization energy)
(d) F> O > B > Be ( Electronegativity)

119.

Ionisation energies of 4 elements A, B, C and D are 899, 590, 549 and 738 KJ/mol respectively. If these elements belong to the same group in the periodic table, which element will occupy the top position in the group? Justify your answer.

120.

Ionisation energies of 4 elements A, B, C and D are 899, 590, 549 and 738 KJ/mol respectively. If these elements belong to the group IIA in the periodic table, arrange the elements in the decreasing order of their ionisation energy.

121.

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122.

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123.

Atomic number of element X is 11 and it forms an ionic compound with element Y.
(a) To which of the following atomic number will match Y?
i. 16
ii. 14
iii. 12
(b) What is the name given to the members of the group to which element X belongs?
(c) Draw the electron dot structure of the compound formed between X and Y.

124.

Atomic number of element M is 16 and it forms an ionic compound with element N.
(a) To which of the following atomic number will match N?
iv. 18
v. 14
vi. 12
(b) What is the name given to the members of the group to which element M belongs?
(c) Draw the electron dot structure of the compound formed between M and N.

125.

The atomic size of Sodium is 1.86 Å, and that of silicon is 1.17 Å. Silicon lies to the __ (left/right) of sodium.

126.

The atomic size of Oxygen is 0.66 Å, and that of sulphur is 1.04 Å. Sulphur lies to the __ (top/bottom) of oxygen.

127.

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